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home/Knowledge Base/I have a question about a model.../All-In-One/I was wondering why the valuation is assumed to also be the acquisition price?
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I was wondering why the valuation is assumed to also be the acquisition price?

20 views 0 August 12, 2020 Updated on November 26, 2022

The acquisition price in the All-in-One defaults to either the Direct Cap or DCF value, depending on the input in cell L27 of the Summary tab. This is because many of our readers use this model for valuation purposes, such as to determine an appropriate price to pay for an investment.

However, you can change the acquisition price by changing the value in cell M27. So for instance, if there’s a set price, you would simply enter that price in cell M27 and the returns would adjust accordingly.

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All-In-One

  • I was wondering why the valuation is assumed to also be the acquisition price?
  • Are there any limitations in the ORI Module of the All-In-One Model?
  • I need help to modify (customize) the model
  • I noticed that the Ai1 model does not have the option to put the value of the property manually. Only by DCF or Cap Rate. While in other models there is an option for manual input.
  • In the MM-Ops sheet, where operating expenses are inserted – is that supposed to be headed “year 1” or the year of stabilization?
  • Wondering why the IRR Matrix sheet/tab does not come up in version .81 but it did come up in prior versions? How can I get it to come up?
View All 32  

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  In MF-OpST tab Cell J35, how do I change the Make Ready amount for Stabilized Year 1? It is an orange cell so I don’t want to make any changes that may impact other things.

I want to build in CapEx for the value-add period in the first 24 months. I spread $800k over 24 months but don’t see it integrated with the debt or equity  

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